Be An IAS/IPS
India is a country where thousands of aspirants fight to be a civil servant and occupy highest posts in the indian government.
“Civil
Services Examination is one of the most competitive examination, the
Success probability is very less” this is a preconceived notion of all
the Civil Services aspirants. Lakhs of people compete in this
Examination and only few hundreds are listed in the final selection
list. This seems to be a demotivating factor for all the aspirants who
take this examination. It becomes imperative that an aspiring candidate
should break this mental block before starting the preparation.
In
the year 2008 the total number of candidates applied for Civil Services
examination is 3,18,843 out of which only 791 were selected in the
final selection list. The Probability of success comparing the number of
people who applied for the examination and number of people who were
finally selected is 0.2%, i.e., one among 500 people clears the
examination. Success probability is less than 1%. This numerical factor
creates a psychological block in the students mind. This is the
general view of the masses.
In
reality this interpretation is completely wrong. On the face value,
statistics shows a picture. Once a deep investigation is done on the
data we can find that the same statistics also has a different face.
Lets take the same data available for the year 2008
Total number of people applied for the examination is 3,18,843 but the
number of people who walked into the examination hall and appeared for
the examination is only 1,67,035 people. The remaining people were
absent for the Preliminary examination. Out of the 1,67,035 people who
appeared for the examination the realtime serious candidates who prepare
for this examination with at most enthusiasm and interest is only 1/4th
of them, which is 40,000 people. The remaining people attend the
examination without much seriousness. The reason for a lethargic
approach of those people are, they attend the exam due to their parents
insistence or without proper preparation expecting luck will favour
them. The real competitors is 40,000, this number was arrived on the
basis of calculating various factors such as number of books sold by the
top publishers and number of coaching centers in India to train people
etc.,
Now
if we relook the probability of success between the 40,000 candidates
and the final selected list of 791. We can find that the probability is
close to 2%. Previously we not even had 1% of success ratio, Now we have
close to 2% of success ratio.
Further to this we should not compare the success ratio between the
40,000 candidates and the final selection list. The comparison should be
between the 40,000 serious candidates and the number of people to be
selected for the Main examination. The number of people selected for the
main examination is approximately is 13 times of the vacancy announced
which is 10,283. Hence out of the 40,000 candidates, 10,283 candidates
clear the preliminary examination i.e., 1 in 4 serious candidates clear
the Prelims. Hence the success ratio in clearing the Preliminary
examination is 25% for a serious candidate. Your competition is not with
the 3,18,843 candidates who applied for the examination. Your job is to
make yourself to be one among the 10,283 people who clear the
preliminary exam out of the 40,000 serious candidates.
Out
of the 10,283 candidates who appear for the Main examination 1582
people are selected for the personality test. Again the success
probability in the Mains arena is 15% approx to make yourself stand for
the personality test.
In the Personality test one among the two candidates is selected in the
personality test in which the success ratio is 50%.
Good understanding of the examination, Structured plan for preparation,
Proper Guidance, Disciplined approach, Perseverance are the factors
which pushes you step by step to the final selection list.
“In
a dense forest two men were walking, suddenly a hungry tiger comes in
front of them. On seeing the tiger both of them decided to run for
saving their lives. One person opened his bag and took his brand new
Nike shoes and weared it. On seeing this, the other person laughed at
him and asked whether his Nike shoes will make him run faster than the
tiger. The first person wearing the Nike shoes replied ‘this Nike shoes
will not make me run faster than the tiger but this shoes will make me
run faster than you’.
This
is the kind of competition existing between the most aspiring
candidates in Civil services examination. Moral of the story is not to
be selfish, but to understand the intensity of the competition which
exist between the serious candidates (40,000 aspiring candidates
mentioned above). Here the Tiger is the Union Public Service
Commission, never try to overcome the expectation of UPSC, this is not
possible in real sense. This will put you in a frustrating situation.
But overcoming your competitors is much easier. All you have to do is to
equip yourself with the skill set required to clear the examination.
This
year the number of vacancy is very high compared to the previous years.
The total number of vacancy is 965 for the year 2010. The success ratio
for Civil Services aspirants is very high this year. I wish all of the
people who read this New Letter to be successful in the Civil Service
Examination 2010 and also achieve their ambitions comfortably creating a
better world. All the best.
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Services/posts to which recruitment is to be made through the Examination are: |
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1) |
Indian Administrative Service (IAS) |
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2) |
Indian Foreign Service (IFS) |
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3) |
Indian Police Service (IPS) |
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4) |
Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A’ |
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5) |
Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A’ |
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6) |
Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise) Group 'A' |
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7) |
Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A’ |
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8) |
Indian Revenue Service, Group ‘A’ (IRS) |
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9) |
Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A’ (Assistant Works Manager, Non-technical) |
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10) |
Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A’ |
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11) |
Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A’ |
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12) |
Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A’ |
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13) |
Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group ‘A’ |
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14) |
Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A’ |
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15) |
Post of Assistant Security Officer, Group ‘A’ in Railway Protection Force |
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16) |
Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A’ |
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17) |
Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group 'A' |
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18) |
Indian Trade Service, Group "A" (Grade-III) |
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19) |
Indian Corporate Law Service, Group "A" |
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20) |
Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group 'B' (Section Officer's Grade) |
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21) |
Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group 'B' |
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22) |
Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Group 'B' |
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23) |
Pondicherry Civil Service, Group 'B' |
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24) |
Pondicherry Police Service, Group 'B' |
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1. Answer the following in not more than 250 words each: 20x2=40
a) Critically examine the implications of the disintegration of the Soviet Union
on India’s security and strategic perspectives. What further responses would
you suggest in India’s foreign policy to accommodate these implications.
b) Evaluate India’s approach towards meeting the country’s growing energy
demands. Compare the success of this approach with that of another Asian
giant which has perhaps the fastest growing energy demand.
2. Answer any four of the following in not more than 150 words each: 12x4=48
a) How far have Japan’s principles of Hikaku San Gensoku impacted bilateral
ties with India?
b) Assess the contributions of Indian diaspora in the Caribbean.
c) Do you agree with the view that Israel is a natural ally of India?
d) Bring out the FDI and employment implications of China being a manufacturing
hub and India a services hub.
e) Have the Uruguay Round negotiations and the resultant Trade Related
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement helped in resolving trade
conflicts arising out of variations in different nations IPR regimes? Also list
the steps taken by India to conform to TRIPS.
f) Examine the recent developments towards the solution of the Bangladesh-
Myanmar maritime boundary dispute. What implications do these have for
India?
3. Answer any eight of the following in not more than 50 words each: 5x8=40
a) Compare and contrast the role of the IMF with that of the World Bank.
b) What are the major capacity-building and reconstruction projects being
undertaken by India in Aghanistan?
c) Bring out tthe significance of GDI and GEM as components of the UN’s
Human Development Report (HDR). Comment on India’s relative rankings
with regard to HDI and GDI.
d) What is ‘Round Tripping’ in the context of FDI inflow, and why has it been in
the news recently in the case of India?
e) Comment on the reason for the recent hike in visa processing fees for certain
categories of US visas. What is the likely impact of this hike on India?
f) In the context of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), distinguish between ‘Annex I’ and ‘Annex II’ countries.
g) Highlight the role of the Indian peacekeeping contingent as part of MONUSCO.
h) List the salient features of the Riyadh declaration and the bilateral agreements
between India and Saudi Arabia signed earlier this year.
i) Comment on the reasons for the recent economic crisis in the so-called
‘PIGS’ countries of Europe.
4. Answer any two of the following in not more than 150 words each: 12x2=24
a) Examine the opportunities for a lasting West Asia peace solution in the context
of the ‘historic’ talks started in September 2010.
b) Has the February agreement between the Sudanese government and the
Justice and Equality Movement (JEM) been more successful in ending the
strife in Darfur than the Abuja peace agreement of 2006? Evaluate.
c) Comment on the present status of the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC).
What important issues, do you think, need to be taken up at the seventh
review conference of the BWC scheduled for 2011?
5. Answer any four of the following in not more than 150 words each: 12x4=48
a) Bring out the applications of computer models in studying climate changes,
with special reference to the community earth system model (CESM).
b) What is phytoremediation? Discuss its applications.
c) Explain and differentiate among ‘Plasma’, ‘LCD’ and ‘LED’ television
technologies.
d) What is cloud computing? Bring out its essential features and list its
advantages and limitations.
e) Discuss the applications of nanotechnology in the health care sector.
6. Comment on any three of the following in not more than 50 words each:5x3=15
a) Rotterdam Convention
b) The Mavi Marmara incident
c) Significance of the Kampala declaration of the International Criminal Court
(ICC)
d) Trial chamber of the Extraordinary Chambers in the Courts of Cambodia (ECCC)
and its recent verdict.
7. Comment on any six of the following in not more than 50 words each: 5x6=30
a) MRSA infection
b) HRP-2M Choromet
c) Maglev vehicles
d) Super absorbent polymers (SAP)
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e) Ginkgo biloba
f) CARTOSAT-2B
g) Various generations of mobile phone technology
8. Who/what are the following and why have they been in the news recently?
(Your answers should be in a sentence or two only): 3x8=24
a) Craig Venter
b) Shahran Amiri
c) Wolfram Alpha
d) ‘Dreamliner’ aircraft
e) Blue gene project
f) Predator drones
g) Deepwater Horizon incident
h) ACTN 3 gene
9. a) The distribution of rent of 150 residential houses surveyed in a locality is as
follows:
Rent in Rs. Number of Houses
101-150 10
151-200 18
201-250 27
251-300 35
301-350 30
351-400 16
401-450 8
451-500 6
Find i) The percentage of houses having rent higher than Rs. 300.
ii) The percentage of houses having rent more than Rs. 250 but less than
Rs. 401. 5
b) Work out the trend values by any suitable method from the following data
showing the number of murders (in thousand) in a country for the years
1985-1995. 5
Year 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990
Murders 19.0 20.6 20.1 20.7 21.5 24.7
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Year 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Murders 24.7 23.8 24.5 23.3 21.6
c) The data on the total investment on different heads under the eighth five year
plan are shown below:
If the total proposed outlay on different heads is Rs. 4,34,100 crores at 1991-
92 prices, obtain separately the proposed outlay on each of the heads and
make an overall comment. 4
d) Represent the following data through a suitable diagram: 3
Region A B C D
Married Criminals 95 80 63 32
Unmarried Criminals 72 25 41 26
10. a) Data on flight arrivals from several cities for two airlines are shown below for
the last six months.
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Table: Citywise “ontime and delayed flights” for airlines A and B
Airline A Airline B
Ontime Delayed Ontime Delayed
City I 497 62 694 117
City II 221 12 4840 415
City III 212 20 383 65
City IV 503 102 320 129
City V 1841 305 201 61
It is known that City II was mostly sunny and City V was mostly foggy during
the six month period of data collection. Compare the performance of the two
airlines A and B over the cities in terms of percentage of delayed flights.
What iis your conclusion when the data on all the cities are combined?
b) The arithmetic mean of two observations is 127.5 and their geometric mean
is 60. Find (i) the two observations and (ii) their harmonic mean.
c) The following table shows the number of bushels of wheat and corn produced
in a farm during tthe years 1950-1960.
Express the yearly number of bushels of wheat and corn as percentages of
total annual production. Graph the percentages by suitable bar charts and
comment. 4
Year No. of bushesl of Wheat No. of bushels of corn
1950 200 75
1951 185 90
1952 225 100
1953 250 85
1954 240 80
1955 195 100
1956 210 110
1957 225 105
1958 250 95
1959 230 110
1960 235 100
d) Following are the maximum daily temperature (ºC) recorded in a week in a
particular city:
38, 40, 36, 35, 30, 32, 34
During that week the average maximum daily temperature in another city
was 92ºF. Determine which city on the average, has higher maximum daily
temperature during that week. 2
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Essay
(Compulsory)
(Mains) - 2010
Time Allowed : Three Hours Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
• The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission
Certificate issued to you. The name of the medium must be stated clearly
on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No
credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified
in the Admission Certificate.
• (Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate’s grasp of his material,
its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively
and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)
Write an essay on any one of the following topics : 200
1. Geography may remain the same; history need not.
2. Should a moratorium be imposed on all fresh mining in tribal areas of the
country?
3. Preparedness of our society for India’s global leadership role.
4. From traditional Indian philanthropy to the Gates-Buffett model—a natural
progression or a paradigm shift?
198
English (Compulsory)
(Mains) - 2010
Time allowed : Three hours Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should attempt ALL questions.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the
question.
Answers must be written in ENGLISH.
1. Write an essay in about 300 words on any one of the following: 100
a) Increasing consumerism in the middle class in India.
b) Are traditional forms of protest no longer effective?
c) The Nuclear Civil Liability Bill.
d) To feed our increasing population,forest areas need to be cleared to
increase land area available for cultivation. Do you agree?
e) Need to check politicisation of Sports bodies in India.
2. Read the following passage carefully and based on it, answer the questions
given below it in clear, correct and concise language: 5 x 15 = 75
According to the findings of a recent government survey there are an
estimated 3.3 million registered NGOs working in the country one for every 400
Indians. Not only has the number of NGOs in India risen dramatically but so
has their influence. In some of India’s flagship development efforts—the National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act, the National Rural Health Mission, the Right
to Education or even the draft Right to Food Act—NGOs have been at the
forefront both in formulating these laws and policies and in implementing them.
NGOs have helped voice the concerns of some of India’s most vulnerable groups
and focus the attention of the government on critical, social and development
issues. They have also spearheaded efforts to expose corruption and maladministration
in government bringing in much needed transparency.
But despite the growing influence of NGOs in India today, we know very little
about them their structure, activities, sources of funding and, more importantly,
how accountable they are to the people they represent. This is alarming given
the crores of rupees in development aid that NGOs receive from the government
and from donors every year. Ironically, though NGOs have been watchdogs of
the government for many years, there has been little regulation or monitoring of govrnment
199
their own activities. Leading many to ask a very fundamental question who
watches the watches?
Interestingly, although India has probably the world’s highest NGO
population, the debate on NGO accountability is still in its nascent stages.
Across the world, NGOs have been experimenting with different ways of
addressing the issue of accountability; Indian NGOs would do well by learning
from these efforts. For example, NGOs in Kenya are legally required to comply
with the Code of Conduct for NGOs developed by the National Council of NGOs,
a self-regulatory body set up under the NGO Coordination Act in 1990. The
code ensures that NGOs comply with basic ethical and governance standards.
Similarly, in Uganda, the NGO Quality Assurance Mechhanism (QuAM) certifies
NGOs against a set of quality standards designed to ensure NGO credibility.
In Chile, Chile Transparente has developed transparency standards for NGOs
which required organisations to publish online information about their mission,
vision, activities, staff, details of funding, etc.
1. What are India’s important development schemes?
2. How do NGOs help ‘Vulnerable groups’ in India?
3. What do we know about the structure, activities and sources of funding of
the NGOs in India?
4. Whom does the author describe as watchers? Why?
5. How do the NGOs in otther nations deal with the issue of accountability?
3. Make a precis of the following passage in about 210-230 words. Failure to write
within the stipulated word limit may result in deduction of marks. The precis
must be written on the separate precis sheets ___________________
In many respects “Sakuntala” is comparable to the more idyllic comedies of
Shakespeare and Kanva’s hermitage is surely not far from tthe Forest of Arden.
The plot of the play, like many of Shakespeare’s plots, depends much on
happy chances and on the super-natual, which, of course, was quite acceptable
to the auidence for which Kalidasa wrote. Its characters, even to the minor
ones, are happily delineated individuals. Kalidasa makes no pretence to realism,
but his dialogue is fresh and vigorous. In fact the dialogue of the better Sanskrit
plays generally seems based on vernacular, and is full of idiomatic expressions.
Indian playgoers did not demand the conflict of feelings and emotions which is
the chief substance of serious European drama, butt Kalidasa was quite capable
of portraying such conflict effectively. His beauties and merits are tarnished by
any translation, but few who can read him in the original would doubt that, both
as poet and dramatist, he was one of the great men of the world.
There were many other dramatists. Sudraka, probably Kalidasa’s approximate
200
contemporary, has left only one play. The Little Clay _____ (________). This is
the most realistic of Indian dramas, untravelling a complicated story, rich in
humour and pathos and crowded with action of the love of a poor brahman,
Carudatta for the virtuous courtezan Vasantasena; this story is interwoven with
one of political intrigue, leading upto the overthrow of the wicked king Palaka,
and the play contains a vivid trial scene, after which the hero is saved from
execution at the last moment. It is notable for its realistic depiction of city life,
and for its host of minor characters, all of whom are drawn with skill and
individuality. It has more than once been performed in translation on the European
stage, and, to a Western audience, is certainly the most easily appreciated of
Indian plays.
Visakhadatta (?6th century) was the dramatist of politics. His only complete
surviving play. The Minister’s Signet Ring (Mudraraksasa), deals with the
schemes of the wily Canakya to foil the plots of Raksasa, the minister of the
last of the Nandas, and to place Candragupta Maurya firmly on the throne. The
plot is exceedingly complicated, but is worked out with great skill, and the play
is beautifully constructed to lead up, like “The Little Clay Cart”, to a pathetic
scene where one of the chief characters is saved from death by impalement at
the last moment.
Second only to Kalidasa in the esteem of the critics was Bhavabbati, who lived
at Kanyakubja in the early 8th century. Three of his plays survive—Malati and
Madhava, “The Later Deeds of Rama” (Uttararamacarita). The first is a love
story with a pseudo-realistic background, full of incident of an exciting or horrific
type, in which the heroine is more than once rescued from death, while the two
latter plays tell the story of Rama. By Western standards as a dramatist
Bhavabhuti falls short of those we have mentioned earlier. His plots are weakly
constructed and his character lack individuality. His greatness rests on his
deep understanding of sorrow; in his treatment of the pathetic and the terrible
he perhaps excels Kalidasa.
4. a) Rewrite the following sentences after making necessary corrections, if
any—
i) I lie half of a mile from here.
ii) Do you like music? “I like”.
iii) Do you like some more coffee?
iv) He worked like a waiter for two years.
v) Like what does she look?
vi) I know him since 1960.
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vii) I wasn’t used to drive a big car.
viii) He suggested me to try the main car park.
ix) I have never met so nice person.
x) Too many Mathematics is usually taught in schools.
b) Rewrite following sentences inserting suitable article(s), wherever
necessary: 5
i) My grandfather had had hard life.
ii) She hit him in stomach.
iii) Queen had dinner with President.
iv) My friend is in hospital.
c) Rewrite the following sentences inserting suitable prepositions in the bblank
spaces: 5
i) I am angry _____ her ____ lying.
ii) I was red ________ anger at his remarks.
iii) Could you explain this rule _________ me please?
iv) People have always been kind ________ men.
d) Give the antonyms of the following adjectives: 5
i) common
ii) loyal
iii) formal
iv) mature
v) sensitive
5. Answer as directed:
a) Rewrite the following sentences using the passive structure: 5
i) She gave her sistet the car.
ii) I had already shown the suspect’s photograph to the policewoman.
iii) They believe him to be dangerous.
iv) They made him tell them everything.
v) They elected me President.
b) Change the following sentences into indirect speech: 5
i) He wrote in his letter, “I saw Poonam at the threatre a couple of days
ago.”
ii) The forecast says, “It will rain tomorrow.”
202
iii) He said to me, “It would be nice if I could see you again.”
iv) I said, “If I had any money I’d buy you a drink.”
v) The teacher said, “Why don’t you work harder?”
c) Rewrite the following sentences, changing them into simple ones: 5
i) I wonder who I should invite.
ii) Show him what he should do.
iii) She couldn’t decide whether she should answer his letter.
iv) He didn’t know where he should park his car.
v) Tell me when I should pay.
d) Add a tag question at the end of each of the following sentences: 5
i) Pooja can speak French.
ii) The meeting is at ten.
iii) You didn’t speak to Mohan.
iv) She wouldn’t like a pet.
v) Harish gave you a cheque.
e) Rewrite the following sentences using ‘it’ in the beginning as a preparatory
subject: 5
i) To make mistakes is easy.
ii) To wait for people who were late made him angry.
iii) My ambition was to retire at thirty.
iv) Your task is to get across the river without being seen.
v) For you to ask Ramesh would be a big mistak
203
Indian Language
210
SAMPLE QUESTIONS BASED ON REVISED
PATTERN
OF CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMS)
EXAMINATION—2011
A set of 21 sample questions for Paper-I and Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination, on the revised syllabus and pattern, are given below. These questions
are indicative of the type of questions that may be constructed and used by UPSC in
Paper-I and Paper II of Civil Services (Preliminary) examination, 2011. However, neither
the content nor the structure/type of questions may be construed as being exhaustive
or limiting the freedom of UPSC to set questions based on the syllabus prescribed for
the examination.
It may be noted that as per the existing practice, both the question papers would be
bilingual (English and Hindi), except for some questions specifically intended to
test English Language Comprehension skills, which would be in English only.
PAPER-I
1. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government
in the provinces.
(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home
Department.
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for
increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian
recruits.
211
2. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Average
Maximum Temp.
°C
31 31 31 31 30 30 29 28 29 29 30 31
Average
Minimum Temp.
ºC
21 21 21 21 21 21 20 20 20 20 20 20
Rainfall (mm) 51 85 188 158 139 121 134 168 185 221 198 86
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following
would it most likely be?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest (b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest (d) Tropical rain forest.
3. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good
option for the production of bio-diesel in India?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly
half of oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and
put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not.
This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of
cellulose
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic
material
212
5. With reference to India, consider the following:
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the ‘financial
inclusion” in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.
6. Consider the following actions by the Government:
1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be
considered a part of the “ fiscal stimulus” package?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may
produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases.
What causes this condition?
(a) When inhaled in to the human body, CO is converted into CO2
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to
oxygen
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain
8. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at
present and in the immediate future?
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in
India.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
213
9. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the
National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalata have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage
and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only
and not any other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
11. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of
deflation?
(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of
economy
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time.
OBSERVATION AND ANALYSIS
As per our observation and analysis of the above mentioned sample questions
given by UPSC, the aspirants may note that all the questions of Paper-I have
already appeared in General Studies question paper in the Civil Services
(Preliminary) Examination, 2010, which was held on 23rd May, 2010.
It can thus be inferred that UPSC has retained the same pattern, format and
difficulty level for Paper-I (previously known as General Studies Paper). In other
words, UPSC has brought about no change in Paper-I.
PAPER-II
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers
should be drawn from the content of given passage only.
The economy of contemporary India is a great paradox. It is a strange
combination of outstanding achievements as well as grave failures. Since
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independence, India has achieved remarkable progress in overcoming its
economic backwardness. From being a very poor country in the 1950s and
a ‘basket case’ in the mid 1960s, it has emerged as the fourth largest
economy in the world (in terms of purchasing power parity). Our economy has
become one of the fastest growing economies in the world. Now the country
is one of the leading players in the world knowledge economy with vast
intellectual capital and booming software and information technology services.
While our country has joined the league of the world’s top five fastest growing
economies, we are in the bottom 20 among all countries in terms of the
Human Development Index. While the country is celebrating its growth rate
and technological wonders, it is witnessing social contradictions and the
paradox and ironies of development. Thus, there are ‘two Indias’ in
contemporary India.
1. Why is the Indian economy considered ‘a great paradox’?
(a) It is a leading player in information technology services with low levels of
literacy.
(b) There is poverty amidst plenty in agricultural produce.
(c) It is one of the largest economies with low human development.
(d) It has scientific achievements with social contradictions.
2. Why is India being referred to as a leading player in the world knowledge
economy?
1. India’s knowledge base in science and technology is one of the world’s
best.
2. India has huge reserves of human intellectual capitals and information
technology services.
3. India is among the World’s five fastest growing economics and technology
reserves.
4. India has a huge reservoir of human capital and scientific knowledge export
potential..3. What does the author imply by the phrase ‘two Indias’?
(a) There is the India that has vast intellectual capital and the other that is
largely illiterate.
(b) There is the India of burgeoning growth and the India of widespread want
and misery.
215
(c) There is the India of progressive mindsets and the other who are socially
conservative.
(d) There is an India of outstanding achievements combined with gigantic
failures.
4. Consider the following statement and also the conclusions. Answer the
question that follows:
Statement : Education is in the Concurrent List. The State government cannot
bring reforms in education without the consent of Central Government.
Conclusion I : For bringing about quick reforms in education, it should be in
the State List.
Conclusion II: States are not willing to bring about quick reforms in Education.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement.
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
5. Five persons P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row. Q is between P and T. To find
who among them is in the middle, which of the information given in the
following statements is/are sufficient?
1. P is left of Q and right of S.
2. R is at the right end.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Either 1 or 2 (d) Both 1 and 2
6. Which one among 2, 3 3, 6 6, 1212 is the smallest one?
(a) 2 (b) 3 3
(c) 6 6 (d) 1212
7. The following pie charts show that a man spends 10% on clothes, 20% on
rent, 30% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of January
and spends 15% on clothes, 25% on rent, 35% on food and rest on
miscellaneous items in the month of February.
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January
Cloths Rent Food Miscellaneous
February
Consider the following statements:
1. The money spent on food over rent in the month of January is same as
the money spent on food over rent in the month of February.
2. The money spent on rent over clothes is same as money spent on food
over rent in the month of January.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Note: The following question would be in English Language only to test
English Language Comprehension.
8. Whenever I had occasion to indulge in these surreptitious feasts, dinner at
home was out of question. My mother would naturally ask me to come and
take my food and want to know the reason why I did not wish to eat. I would
say to her, ‘I have no appetite today; there is something wrong with my
digestion.’ It was not without compunction that I devised these pretexts. I
knew I was lying, and lying to my mother. l also knew that, if my mother and
father came to know of my having become a meat-eater, they would be deeply
shocked. This knowledge was gnawing at my heart.
Why did the author devise some pretexts not without compunction ?
(a) He wanted to keep away from home some times.
(b) Surreptitious feasts thrilled him.
(c) Dinners outside were better than at home.
(d) He wanted to eat meat.
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9. You have come across a case wherein an old sick lady is unable to submit
her life certificate and claim pension to meet her treatment expenses. Knowing
your superior’s procedural approach in handling issues, you…
(a) Go strictly as per the procedures
(b) Take initiative to help the lady arranging for alternative documents
(c) Assist the lady with some money on your own but do not compromise on
procedures.
(d) Avoid some procedural steps since you understand the necessity of the
lady.
10. You along with your friend were chatting in a restaurant over a cup of coffee.
Suddenly you heard an intense sound of blast very close by. You….
(a) Jump on your feet and hold your friend tightly
(b) Take your look away from the source of noise and start praying for the best
(c) Start locating the source of noise
(d) Start shouting for help
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TIME TABLE FOR CIVIL SERVICES (MAIN)
EXAMINATION, 2010
Date/Day Forenoon Session Afternoon Session
9.00 A. M. to 12.00 P.M. 2.00 P. M. to 5.00 P. M.
29.10.2010 General Studies Paper-I General Studies Paper-II
(Friday)
30.10.2010 Essay English
(Saturday)
31.10.2010 Indian Language —
(Sunday) {Assamese/Bengali/Bodo/Dogri/
Gujarati/Hindi/Kannada/Kashmiri/
Konkani/Maithili/Malayalam/
Manipuri/Marathi/Nepali/Oriya/
Punjabi/Sanskrit/Santali/Sindhi
(Devanagari/Arabic Script)/Tamil/
Telugu/Urdu}
02.11.2010 Political Science & International Political Science & International
(Tuesday) Relations Paper-I/ Relations Paper-II/
Public Administration Paper-I Public Administration Paper-II
03.11.2010 Geography Paper-I Geography Paper-II
(Wednesday)
04.11.2010 History Paper-I History Paper-II
(Thursday)
08.11.2010 Literature of Literature of
(Monday) Arabic/Assamese/Bengali/Bodo/ Arabic/Assamese/Bengali/Bodo/
Chinese/Dogri/English/French/ Chinese/Dogri/English/French/
German/Gujarati/Hindi/Kannada/ German/Gujarati/Hindi/Kannada/
Kashmiri/Konkani/Maithili/ Kashmiri/Konkani/Maithili/
Malayalam/Manipuri/Marathi/Nepali/ Malayalam/Manipuri/Marathi/Nepali
Oriya/Pali/Persian/Punjabi/Russian/ Oriya/Pali/Persian/Punjabi/Russian/
Sanskrit/Santali/Sindhi (Devanagari/ Sanskrit/Santali/Sindhi (Devanagari/
Arabic Script)/Tamil/Telugu/Urdu Arabic Script)/Tamil/Telugu/Urdu
Language Paper-I Language Paper-II
09.11.2010 Philosophy Paper-I Philosophy Paper-II
(Tuesday)
10.11.2010 Sociology Paper-I/ Sociology Paper-II/
(Wednesday) Anthropology Paper-I Anthropology Paper-II
11.11.2010 Psychology Paper-I Psychology Paper-II
(Thursday)
12.11.2010 Zoology Paper-I Zoology Paper-II
219
(Friday)
13.11.2010 Law Paper-I Law Paper-II
(Saturday)
15.11.2010 Economics Paper-I Economics Paper-II
(Monday)
16.11.2010 Commerce & Accountancy Paper-I/ Commerce & Accountancy Paper-II
(Tuesday) Management Paper-I Management Paper-II
18.11.2010 Civil Engg. Paper-I/Electrical Engg. Civil Engg.Paper-II/Electrical Engg.
(Thursday) Paper-I/Mechanical Engg. Paper-I/ Paper-II/Mechanical Engg. Paper-II/
Medical Science Paper-I Medical Science Paper-II
19.11.2010 Botany Paper-I Botany Paper-II
(Friday)
20.11.2010 Mathematics Paper-I/ Mathematics Paper-II/
(Saturday) Statistics Paper-I Statistics Paper-II
22.11.2010 Agriculture Paper-I/ Agriculture Paper-II/
(Monday) Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Animal Husbandry & Veterinary
Science Paper-I Science Paper-II
23.11.2010 Physics Paper-I Physics Paper-II
(Tuesday)
25.11.2010 Chemistry Paper-I Chemistry Paper-II
(Thursday)
26.11.2010 Geology Paper-I Geology Paper-II
(Friday)
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